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statistics also prove that men are more likely to be victims of violent crimes by other men. I would assume a similar research method would not prove similar results to the above study. Why is that? Could it be related to cultural influences? Could there be evolutionary reasons? I don't know, but it is not as simple as people reasoning from a reflection of statistics.

"the statistically real greater threat posed by a black" -above
completely unfounded assumptions from basic statistics. You need to prove a causal relationship, not just correlation. You also need understand the implications of scale. Can you interpolate from the USA Black population as a whole to the individual level, or even to your own city or neighborhood? More black people in the USA are convicted of violent crimes, in general, yes (which doesn't take into account racism in the court system, inherent and otherwise). That does not mean that being black means that there is a greater likelihood of an individual committing a violent crime. You need to prove that being black causes people to commit more violent crimes in a scientific experiment to make your claim.