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Interpretation
July 31, 2008
by Anonymous,
1 year 16 weeks ago
Comment: 31312
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After 34, men are more likely to be married than women, and the gap only widens with age, mirroring men's growing satisfaction with family life.
Since a marriage usually takes one member of both groups in this study what is this result supposed to mean? Yes, there are religious and sexual minority groups where this does not apply, but the article doesn't mention minorities.
The number of people from both sexes who are married should be exactly the same at any given time (in "standard" marriages).
Two simple explanations would be that women tend to be younger than their husbands (thus more likely to be married younger. Also a bit more men are born than women) and that men tend to die before their wives (who are then "no longer married" at old age) and women in general (thus forming a larger group).
I don't see how "men's growing satisfaction with family life" could have any effect besides the kind of reasons listed above. The age milestones are so high that similar questions should be asked about the other results of this study.